Originally Posted by legomom922:
I have a question her for a "Contract" expert, LOL.
if I have a client who signed a contract for certain days (tues , thurs, fri) and then due to work they switched their days to mon, wed, thurs, but because of the Christmas holiday a new contract has not been signed. I had to term them today. Would the old contract still be valid? Or am I offically working without a contract? The reason why I am asking is because my contract states that when notice is given by any party, the 2 wk period is still paid even if their child no longer attends, and this DCM is stating she is not going to pay me.
Anyone know the legalities of this? i need to know if I am up the creek without a paddle!
I read your other thread. I think the last sentence of your thread here sums it up. Here is what I wrote in the other thread: IMHO, that fact that you gave her an offer letter with a no contract mention leaves the ball with her. That letter is the current contract.